Initial Qualification Training (IQT) Block 1 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The TRC-215 consists of which two components?
• Who advises the CRC on the capabilities of the Army's ADA systems and communicates critical information to the ADA command post?
• 213 Interface Unit interfaces up to how many units?
• Which component provides a training environment for CRC within the AN/TYQ-23A system?
• What supplies CRC with internet and DSN telephone capabilities?
• ________ is a set of parameters used to initialize a JU's terminal for Link 16 communications.
• Generally, the regions and/or sectors for each RADC and SADC are based on_______ size.
• Which TACS element provides operational-level Command and Control of air, space, and cyberspace operations and is the focal point for planning, directing, and assessing those operations?
• The AADP is the principal planning document used by which commander to articulate the IADS plan?
• How many operator workstations are within the TOC and the S-280 shelter, respectively?
• Jabber, Transverse, and mIRC are examples of what kind of software applications?
• The TRC-213 and TRC-214 components form part of which system?
• True or False. JREAP-C offers the operator a choice between TCP/IP or UDP Unicast peer-to-peer connection mode.
• The AADP generally consists of how many major sections?
• True or False. The ROE states that any incoming ballistic missile launched from enemy territory can be shot down, the ballistic missile requires a Hostile identification before the RADC orders assets to engage it.
• A __________ is a Link 11B unit that is connected to another Link 11B unit and only communicates its own data.
• Which role within the CRC ensures crews receive the most current information?
• Who establishes the TAGS to facilitate support relationships and coordinate planning of JTF operations?
• How many UHF HAVE QUICK radios are available in the TRC-214?
• Which TACS element is the primary hub for executing airpower in direct support of joint force land component operations?
• Which S-280 shelter component provides secure communications over IP-based networks?
• When which control is designated, a combatant commander may provide local direction?
• The Operations Logbook opens and closes at which times?
• Which guidance provides the process and means of ordering engagements?
• Which data link is described as secure and using TDMA to provide air-to-air and air-to-ground communications?
• What is the Operations Coordinator (OC) responsible for?
• What does the MC/SL do with completed 4145s/4146s?
• True or False. The MACCS and NTACS conduct the same functions at the same time.
• Which individual coordinates AMD for designated assets and is typically collocated in the CRC?
• Which authority is the process of determining the friendly or hostile character of an unknown detected contact?
• Which transmission type uses the Class 2H JTIDS terminal in the JM?
• Liaison activities between the AAGS and TACS take place through ______ ______.
• Which piece of equipment provides power to the AN/TPS-75 radar and 23A support equipment?
• Scramble Authority is used and can be delegated by the _______.
• Who completes the AF Form 4146?
• Which statement is true about Link 11 and Link 16?
• Altitude coverage of the AN/TPS-75?
• In the radar van, where is the MAIN POWER SAFETY INTERRUPT located?
• Which statement describes the JREAP-A protocol?
• Which position is directly subordinate to the Regional Air Defense Commander (RADC)?
• What is the role of the JRE in the network?
• Which device was developed to replace the need for long cables?
• What equipment provides multiband SATCOM capabilities?
• What equipment provides temperature control to the TOC?
• Jabber, Transverse, and mIRC are examples of what kind of chat software application?
• A unit can participate in how many operational Link 11 data links at one time?
• The _______ is a tailored system of integrated Service component systems designed, organized, and manned to meet the JFC's intent.
• Which piece of equipment is a mobile radar system that provides 3D 360 degree coverage of the airspace?
• What is the frequency range of the RT-9000A HF transceiver?
• Who is responsible for providing the mission crews with the most up-to-date information?
• Which component is the operator's interface to the BMC2 Client Server?
• The _______ manages when PUs send and receive information.
• True or False: The operations logbook must be permanently bound and may be electronic.
• Which component extends the S-280 Shelter network to the TOC and workstations?
• Which piece of equipment is a full duplex, line of sight, microwave radio designed to replace cable runs?
• Which TYQ-23A component is a data communications and fusion system that receives, forwards, and displays tactical information from multiple data links and radar interfaces?
• Who issues fire control orders to subordinate ADA units?
• To whom do the Regional Interface Control Officer (RICO) and Sector Interface Control Officers (SICO) report?
• Name the Link 11 encryption device.
• The full duplex, line-of-sight microwave radio designed to replace cable runs is named what?
• Name the Link 16 encryption device.
• TAOC stands for what?
• What does SADL stand for?
• Which TOC component is the interface between the operator and the BMC2 Client Server?
• Where is the division-level interconnection of TACS/AAGS located?
• Which component hosts the software application for control of the JRE server?
• True or False. Link 16 is jam resistant because it spreads its transmission over several frequencies combined with frequency hopping.
• True or False. Full duplex allows data to be transmitted and received at allocated times.
• Main components of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC)?
• Name the SADL encryption device.
• The AN/TPS-75 has an altitude coverage of up to how many feet?
• Which power rating corresponds to 120 KW continuous power?
• The commit and engagement authorities are separated primarily to prevent what?
• BMC2 Display Client servers in the S-280 provide processing for how many workstations?
• Which device in the S-280 shelter provides secure IP communications?
• Under theater ROE, which authority enables the initial decision to engage a threat once Hostile is established?
• Name the Link 11B encryption device.
• How many air-to-air players can one SADL network support?
• Which of the following lists the four transit cases?
• At the division level interconnection of TACS/AAGS is located within which facility?
• Who is responsible for ensuring that the forms are completed prior to the end of each shift?
• What is the Marine TACC?
• Which commander is given the authority necessary to accomplishing missions and tasks assigned by the establishing commander?
• Who manages the UCC facility and ensures the UCC can meet all administrative functions?
• Which role coordinates the cross-functional CRC support and serves as the primary hub for CRC service desks?
• How many Link 11B data links can be operational at any one time?
• Which form provides a complete summary of all crew operations for a particular shift and is an important tool for data collection and analysis?
• What equipment in the S-280 shelter provides both secure and non secure voice and data connections?
• True or False. The Mission Commander (MC) is the final authority for all mission decisions except as retained by the CC.
• Which option correctly lists all four systems that comprise TAGS?
• Which statement best reflects the role of the Area Air Defense Plan (AADP)?
• Which position is directly subordinate to the Area Air Defense Commander (AADC)?
• The _______ is the primary air control agency in the Amphibious Objective Area (AOA) until control is phased ashore.
• SADL stands for?
• Which statement best describes how theater ROE interacts with engagement of hostilities?
• What does UNAP stand for?
• NDL stands for what in this context?
• Who is responsible for developing the AADP to achieve DCA objectives?
• DASC stands for what?
• Which equipment provides C, X, Ku, and Ka SATCOM capabilities?
• Which AOC division produces and disseminates the AT, ACO, ACP, and SPINS?
• Link 16 LOS operations relate to data links how?
• Which document records events during mission operations and serves as the official record?
• Which position is accountable for coordinating maintenance, mission, and support activities across both in-garrison and deployed operations?
• Who recognizes and protects against electronic attack?
• Who ensures facilitation, planning, direction, coordination, and control of maintenance, mission, and support activities for both in-garrison and deployed operations?
• Name the JREAP-A encryption device.
• What are the radiation hazards associated within the CRC?
• The planning functions concerning deployment of air and surface DCA assets may be delegated to which positions when CRC acts in a regional or sector role?
• Which TYQ-23A component functions as a data fusion system that aggregates tactical information from multiple data links and radar interfaces?
• The CRC uses an ID Matrix developed by the _____ to implement the specifics of the ID process.
• Which statement accurately describes the role of the Operations Coordinator (OC)?
• Mission Commander (MC) or DO designee is responsible for what form?
• Who generates the Area Air Defense Plan (AADP)?
• Who directly oversees the Site Support Section, the direct link between the UCC and the mission crew?
• Which statement best describes the Air Surveillance Technician (AST)?
• Precise Participant Location and Identification (PPLI) enables participating units to do what?
• Who is the primary responsible who coordinates AMD for designated assets and is collocated in the CRC?
• The TAGS is established by the _____ to facilitate support relationships and coordinate planning of JTF operations.
• The Army Air Defense Artillery Fire Control Officer (ADAFCO) is part of which TAGS element?
• What do Situational Awareness Data Link (SADL) radios interface with to exchange position and identity information in an air-to-ground network?
• Which statement best describes a Link 16 Network?
• True or False. The term half-duplex means that only one PU can be transmitting its data at a single time in the net interface.
• In its capacity as RADC, the CRC will provide C2 guidance for the _______.
• True or False. The main components of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) are Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, and NCC.
• Which roles are authorized to delegate Scramble Authority?
• The TAGS is comprised of the following four systems:
• The CRC in its role as a ______, may also be delegated certain planning functions concerning the deployment of air and surface DCA assets.
• Who supervises TDL operations?
• Which form is used by Weapons Directors to document all control activities conducted during a duty shift?
• Which section serves as the direct link between the UCC and the mission crew?
• If the CRC is designated as the RADC, it will use ______ ___________ decisions to execute against the needs and requirements that the AADP puts into place.
• Who uses the DCN to manage and coordinate the entire MTA?
• The Joint Forces Commander (JFC) may require a RICO/SICO for each RADC/SADC. Recommendations come from which officer?
• Whose primary responsibility is providing control of aircraft within the CRC's AOI?
• What is the official record of Mission Operations?
• Which equipment can run off a single generator and switch between generators?
• RSAS LOW capabilities — which statement is accurate?
• In MACCS, the Direct Air Support Center (DASC) is responsible for?
• What does JFC stand for?
• The fire extinguisher in the radar van is located on which surface?
• The Sector Air Defense Commander (SADC) is directly subordinate to which commander?
• Which form provides a complete summary of crew operations for a shift and supports data collection and analysis?
• JICO stands for which title?
• The escape hatch in the AN/TPS-75 radar van is located:
• Which radio antenna is the most hazardous?
• Which piece of equipment is a tactical data router bridging Link 16 terminals and MIL-STD 3011 Link 16 protocols?
• Which protocol is used to move data via DAMA satellites?
• Which AOC division executes the current ATO?
• Which set of documents or guidance governs the process for ordering engagements?
• Which of the following is true about Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) main components?
• Which section of the Current Read File must be read before performing operations?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a CRC mission essential function?
• Who briefs the operations crew on all aspects of the mission during contingency operations?
• Which section of the Current Read File contains items temporary in nature and must be read before performing operations?
• Who ensures track data quality on the common tactical picture?
• Who is responsible to the MC for the overall supervision of a Battle Management Team (BMT); this person directs assigned BMT WDs and STs in the effective management of allocated resources?
• Which S-280 shelter component can be used for TACSAT DAMA to enable JREAP-A?
• Where is the ADSI located and what function does it bring to the CRC?
• DNCS stands for what?
• Which TYQ-23A component houses the Class II JTIDS terminal?
• A fighter has visually identified an enemy and the AADC has declared the target hostile during stability operations. Can the CRC battle manager issue an engagement order?
• Who is responsible to the MC for the overall management of the surveillance function?
• The AN/MJQ-1612 TQG powers the TYQ-23A and support equipment.
• Which authority is used to launch and employ alert assets?
• Which system powers the AN/TPS-75 radar?
• What CRC Section is a consolidation of all help/service desks found in the CRC including the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC), telephone administration desk?
• UNAP stands for what?
• The ________ establishes the SADL network time and all users time synchronize to it.
• What does MPC stand for?
• Which statement about the AADP's major sections is true?
• Which unit is the primary Army liaison with the Tactical Air Control System (TACS)?
• What can the CSP simulate?
• Which organization establishes the TAGS to facilitate support relationships and coordinate planning of joint task force operations?
• Where is the Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD) located?
• The CRC conducts missions at which level?
• Which term describes the process of identifying an unknown contact's allegiance within the AO?
• Which component can be used to enable JREAP-A communications via satellite?
• Which transit case connects, processes, and delivers data for all external, unclassified radars?
• The Class II JTIDS terminal is housed in which TYQ-23A component?
• What is a set of platform-unique parameters received from the network design facility (NDF)?
• Which system integrates service components to meet the JFC's intent?
• Which system powers the TYQ-23A and its support equipment?
• Link 11 B connectivity — which option indicates its connectivity?
• The Section Lead (SL) is responsible for whom during the mission?
• A unit can be a part of how many operational Link 11 data links at one time?
• Precise Participant Location and Identification (PPLI) enables which capability?
• Which is the point of contact between the CRC and the Fire Direction Center (FDC)?
• Which component is used to support secure communications over IP networks in the S-280 shelter?
• What is the frequency range of the RT-1272 UHF LOS transceivers?
• In the context of JREAP-C, which connection modes are supported?
• What kind of paper can be used for the operations logbook? Can it be electronic?
• The _______ is subordinate to the Marine TACC and is responsible for airspace control and management.
• If the Mission Commander is unavailable, who can fulfill the responsibility for ensuring forms are completed?
• Who is primarily responsible for recognizing and protecting against electronic attack?
• Which device is described as hosting the JRE Client, JM JIBterminal software applications and JTEP equipment user manuals?
• The RRSVS enhances which aspect of field communications?
• Which transit case is used for Link 11A operations?
• Which two positions correspond to regional and sector air defense commands?
• Which AOC division is responsible for executing the current ATO?
• Which component accepts external radar and data link messages and integrates them into a single integrated air picture?
• A __________ is a collection of synchronized participants that communicate information during their dedicated time slots.
• Which component contains the Cross Domain Solution (CDS)?
• What does SADL stand for?
• The AADC recommends to the ______ who may choose to divide the Joint Operations Area into separate air defense regions.
• Where is the fire extinguisher located in the radar van?
• Who transmits appropriate weapons commands to the Fire Direction Centers (FDCs) and Information Coordination Central (ICC) to ensure ADA resources are employed effectively?
• Who establishes the UCC?
• Which center houses the Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD)?
• Which organization is home to the Tactical Data Link Operations and Management Organization (TDLOMO)?
• Which TACS element is responsible for the execution of airpower in direct support of joint force land component operations?
• Why are commit and engagement authorities separate?
• What is the ADAFCO responsible for?
• How many Secure Telephone Equipment (STEs) are located in the S-280 shelter?
• Which frequency spectrum is line of sight (LOS) and associated with Link 16?
• Which CRC Section is a consolidation of all help/service desks found in the CRC including the MOC and the telephone administration desk?
• The _______ is the Air and Missile Defense (AMD) engagement operation subject matter expert to the RADC/SADC.
• Which entity holds air and missile engagement authority and to whom is it normally delegated?
• In the S-280 shelter, where is the EMERGENCY POWER OFF switch located?
• Who is responsible to the SL for providing tactical BMC2 within the continuum of control and committing weapons resources to counter the threat?
• Scan rate of the AN/TPS-75?
• Which crew position performs voice tell operations?
• When acting as the RADC, which of the following is within its scope?
• Remote Radio Secure Voice System (RRSVS) provides what to the CRC?
• MAGTF stands for what?
• In the S-280 shelter, where is the emergency shutoff located and what is it labelled?
• What is the AN/GRC-239 Tropo Satellite Support Radio (TSSR) developed for?
• RSAS LOW delivers data for which radars?
• During large operations, the Area Air Defense Commander (AADC) may divide the Joint Operations Area into separate _____.
• The _____ is the primary Army liaison with the TACS.
• Which action is the recommended flow for completed 4146 forms after issuance?
• What is the classification of the Operations Logbook?
• Which factor primarily informs the geographic delineation of regions for RADC/SADC?
• Range of the AN/TPS-75?
• The CRC can exchange data with how many Link 11 Participating Units?
• Which TYQ-23A component houses up to 18 operator workstations?
• Which JREAP is a synchronous and asynchronous point-to-point mode of communication?
• Which technology contributes to Link 16 jam resistance?
• What equipment allows for Link 11A operations?
• The shutoff switch in the TPS-75 is labeled
• Among the listed antennas, which is considered the most hazardous?
• When acting as the RADC, the CRC will provide AADP guidance not limited to which of the following?
• Which of the following is a complete list of the mission essential functions the CRC can conduct or provide?
• Which of the following best describes the purpose of the red triangle sign in the CRC?
• Which liaison element processes Navy force and Marine Corps landing force requests for air support?
• Which component manages the shared ATO and ACO data?
• True or False. The JRE is a communications router that extends the range of a Link 16 Line Of Sight (LOS) data link Beyond Line Of Sight (BLOS).
• Who's responsible for supervising ICTs and ECPs?
• The MACCS provides who with the means to exercise C2 authority over Marine Assets?
• What piece of equipment is a Windows based computer that hosts the JRE Client, JM JIBterminal software applications and JTEP equipment user manuals?
• Who is responsible to the AST for establishing and maintaining TDLs and monitoring data link effectiveness?
• Which document records events during any live operation, System Training Exercise, or data link event?
• Who holds air and missile engagement authority in theater and to whom is it normally delegated?
• Who is responsible for monitoring the application of the ID/ROE in their assigned BMA?
• How many SADL air keys are there?
• Engagement Authority is an inherent part of Commit Authority.
• The 213 Interface Unit is described as which of the following?
• The theater deployable communications (TDC) package provides which types of communications?
• Which element supports the Air Operations Center (AOC) in integrating naval air, naval fires, and amphibious operations?
• Where are BMC2 Display Client servers located?
• True or False. Any track with a Hostile identification can be engaged IAW theater ROE.
• All logbook entries are recorded using which time standard?
• Which position is directly subordinate to the Area Air Defense Commander (AADC)?
• Which tactical data link is a secure, spread-spectrum, frequency hopping waveform using Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) to provide an air-to-air and air-to-ground data-link capability?
• The CRC uses what type of JTIDS terminal?
• TDLOMO stands for which phrase?
• Which UCC section is ultimately responsible for the welfare of the unit and its personnel?
• Which equipment allows for Link 11B operations?
• Which tactical data link requires an active DNCS to operate?
• Which item is used specifically to support Link 11A operations?
• Which role is responsible to the MC for the overall supervision of a Battle Management Team (BMT) and directs assigned BMT WDs and STs in the effective management of allocated resources?
• Which piece provides voice recording capability?
• The AN/TSC-147 JTIDS Module provides a pathway between Link 16 and which data link?
• Which of the following is not a transit case?
• Who detects, initiates, identifies, and maintains tracks?
• What do WDs and ABMs do with completed 4146s?
• Name the four transit cases.
• Who is responsible for overall readiness and mission of the mission crew?
• Which AN/TYQ-23A component provides a realistic training environment for CRC?
• What does the red triangle sign indicate?
• What equipment provides C, X, Ku, and Ka SATCOM transmission and reception?
• The _____ advises CCs fire support measures, activating fire support coordination measures, and assisting with airspace coordination.
• A tool used for categorizing a track and maintaining its appropriate ID while in the AO is the _____.
• Which entity retains authority for certain mission decisions, as noted in the authority statement?
• Link 11 B connectivity— which option describes its connectivity?
• Which access method allows numerous, widely dispersed users to share the entire frequency and exchange data in real time?
• Which transit case receives data from local and remote AN/TPS-75 radars?
• Which term describes a way to organize and categorize J-series messages based on functionality?
• What does JFACC stand for?
• The JFC may require a RICO/SICO for each RADC/SADC with recommendations from which officer, conveyed through which chain?
• What is the primary function of the Naval and Amphibious Liaison Element (NALE) within the AOC?
• What JREAP does the Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) phone provide?
• The ADAFCO is responsible for transmitting weapons commands to which components?
• Which of the following best describes the Data Net Control Station (DNCS)?
• Who develops the AADP to achieve DCA objectives to maintain air superiority?
• Who is responsible for making sure that forms are available to meet administrative requirements?
• The _______ is the Army's control system for synchronizing, coordinating, and integrating air operations with the commander's scheme of maneuver.
• What does the acronym TQG stand for?
• Which unit is primarily responsible for airspace control and management within MACCS?
• All logbook entries are recorded using which time standard?